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To prepare for the CySA+ certification exam, candidates can take advantage of various training resources available online or in-person. CompTIA offers official training courses and study materials to help candidates prepare for the exam. Additionally, there are several online communities and study groups that candidates can join to get support and guidance from other cybersecurity professionals.
NEW QUESTION # 129
A security analyst performs various types of vulnerability scans. Review the vulnerability scan results to determine the type of scan that was executed and if a false positive occurred for each device.
Instructions:
Select the Results Generated drop-down option to determine if the results were generated from a credentialed scan, non-credentialed scan, or a compliance scan.
For ONLY the credentialed and non-credentialed scans, evaluate the results for false positives and check the findings that display false positives. NOTE: If you would like to uncheck an option that is currently selected, click on the option a second time.
Lastly, based on the vulnerability scan results, identify the type of Server by dragging the Server to the results.
The Linux Web Server, File-Print Server and Directory Server are draggable.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset All button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 130
During a forensic investigation, a security analyst reviews some Session Initiation Protocol packets that came from a suspicious IP address. Law enforcement requires access to a VoIP call that originated from the suspicious IP address. Which of the following should the analyst use to accomplish this task?
- A. Wireshark
- B. iptables
- C. Tcpdump
- D. Netflow
Answer: D
Explanation:
https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/s/question/0D53i00000KszWaCAJ/netflow-vs-packet-analyzer
NEW QUESTION # 131
A security analyst was alerted to a tile integrity monitoring event based on a change to the vhost-paymonts
.conf file The output of the diff command against the known-good backup reads as follows
Which of the following MOST likely occurred?
- A. The file was altered to verify the card numbers are valid.
- B. The file was altered to accept payments without charging the cards
- C. The file was altered to avoid logging credit card information
- D. The file was altered to harvest credit card numbers
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 132
During a review of vulnerability scan results an analyst determines the results may be flawed because a control-baseline system which is used to evaluate a scanning tools effectiveness was reported as not vulnerable Consequently, the analyst verifies the scope of the scan included the control-baseline host which was available on the network during the scan. The use of a control-baseline endpoint in this scenario assists the analyst in confirming.
- A. the criticality index
- B. verification of mitigation
- C. false positives
- D. hardening validation.
- E. false negatives
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 133
A security professional is analyzing the results of a network utilization report. The report includes the following information:
Which of the following servers needs further investigation?
- A. mrktg.file.srvr.02
- B. R&D.file.srvr.01
- C. web.srvr.03
- D. hr.dbprod.01
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 134
A security analyst performs various types of vulnerability scans. Review the vulnerability scan results to determine the type of scan that was executed and if a false positive occurred for each device.
Instructions:
Select the Results Generated drop-down option to determine if the results were generated from a credentialed scan, non-credentialed scan, or a compliance scan.
For ONLY the credentialed and non-credentialed scans, evaluate the results for false positives and check the findings that display false positives. NOTE: If you would like to uncheck an option that is currently selected, click on the option a second time.
Lastly, based on the vulnerability scan results, identify the type of Server by dragging the Server to the results.
The Linux Web Server, File-Print Server and Directory Server are draggable.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset All button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 135
Which of the following are the most likely reasons to include reporting processes when updating an incident response plan after a breach? (Select two).
- A. To limit reputation damage caused by the breach
- B. To isolate potential insider threats
- C. To meet regulatory requirements for timely reporting
- D. To provide secure network design changes
- E. To remediate vulnerabilities that led to the breach
- F. To use the SLA to determine when to deliver the report
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
B) To meet regulatory requirements for timely reporting: Many industries and jurisdictions have laws and regulations that mandate reporting of security breaches within a certain time frame. Failing to comply with these requirements can result in fines, penalties, lawsuits, and loss of trust. Therefore, it is important to have a clear and consistent reporting process that ensures timely and accurate disclosure of the breach to the relevant authorities.
C) To limit reputation damage caused by the breach: A security breach can have a negative impact on the reputation and credibility of the organization. Customers, partners, investors, and the public may lose confidence in the organization's ability to protect their data and interests. Therefore, it is important to have a transparent and honest reporting process that informs the affected parties about the nature, scope, and consequences of the breach, as well as the actions taken to mitigate and prevent future incidents. This can help restore trust and goodwill among the stakeholders.
Explanation:
According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition1, reporting is an essential part of the incident response process. It helps communicate the details and impact of the incident to various stakeholders, such as management, customers, regulators, law enforcement, and the public. Reporting also provides valuable feedback and lessons learned that can improve the security posture and readiness of the organization.
Based on this information, the most likely reasons to include reporting processes when updating an incident response plan after a breach are:
NEW QUESTION # 136
During a Fagan code inspection, which process can redirect to the planning stage?
- A. Rework
- B. Preparation
- C. Meeting
- D. Overview
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 137
An incident response team detected malicious software that could have gained access to credit card dat a. The incident response team was able to mitigate significant damage and implement corrective actions. By having incident response mechanisms in place. Which of the following should be notified for lessons learned?
- A. The legal team
- B. Customers
- C. The human resources department
- D. Company leadership
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 138
Which of the following is the BEST way to gather patch information on a specific server?
- A. Custom script
- B. Event Viewer
- C. SCAP software
- D. CI/CD
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 139
An incident response team is responding to a breach of multiple systems that contain PII and PHI. Disclosing the incident to external entities should be based on:
- A. the public relations policy
- B. the communication plan
- C. the responder's discretion
- D. senior management's guidance
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 140
While observing several host machines, a security analyst notices a program is overwriting data to a buffer. Which of the following controls will best mitigate this issue?
- A. Data execution prevention
- B. Parameterized queries
- C. Output encoding
- D. Prepared statements
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data execution prevention (DEP) is a security feature that prevents code from being executed in memory regions that are marked as data-only. This helps mitigate buffer overflow attacks, which are a type of attack where a program overwrites data to a buffer beyond its allocated size, potentially allowing malicious code to be executed. DEP can be implemented at the hardware or software level and can prevent unauthorized code execution in memory buffers. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 10; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/memory/data-execution-prevention
NEW QUESTION # 141
During a routine review of service restarts a security analyst observes the following in a server log:
Which of the following is the GREATEST security concern?
- A. The process identifiers for the running service change
- B. Four consecutive days of monitoring are skipped in the tog
- C. The PIDs are continuously changing
- D. The daemon's binary was AChanged
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 142
During a red team engagement, a penetration tester found a production server. Which of the following portions of the SOW should be referenced to see if the server should be part of the testing engagement?
- A. Exploitation
- B. Communication
- C. Authorization
- D. Scope
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 143
During an investigation, a security analyst determines suspicious activity occurred during the night shift over the weekend. Further investigation reveals the activity was initiated from an internal IP going to an external website.
Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate recommendation to prevent the activity from happening in the future?
- A. A firewall rule that will block traffic from the specific IP addresses
- B. An IDS signature modification for the specific IP addresses
- C. An IPS signature modification for the specific IP addresses
- D. A firewall rule that will block port 80 traffic
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 144
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned about new privacy regulations that apply to the company. The CISO has tasked a security analyst with finding the proper control functions to verify that a user's data is not altered without the user's consent. Which of the following would be an appropriate course of action?
- A. Use a DLP product to monitor the data sets for unauthorized edits and changes.
- B. Automate the use of a hashing algorithm after verified users make changes to their data.
- C. Use encryption first and then hash the data at regular, defined times.
- D. Replicate the data sets at regular intervals and continuously compare the copies for unauthorized changes.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Automating the use of a hashing algorithm after verified users make changes to their data is an appropriate course of action to verify that a user's data is not altered without the user's consent. Hashing is a technique that produces a unique and fixed-length value for a given input, such as a file or a message. Hashing can help to verify the data integrity by comparing the hash values of the original and modified data. If the hash values match, then the data has not been altered without the user's consent. If the hash values differ, then the data may have been tampered with or corrupted .
NEW QUESTION # 145
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