Mar 06, 2026 Updated 156-536 Dumps Questions For CheckPoint Exam [Q16-Q37]

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Mar 06, 2026 Updated 156-536 Dumps Questions For CheckPoint Exam

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NEW QUESTION # 16
Which of the following is TRUE about the functions of Harmony Endpoint components?

  • A. SmartEndpoint Console connects to and manages the Endpoint Management Server (EMS)
  • B. SmartEndpoint connects to the Check Point Security Management Server (SMS)
  • C. SmartConsole connects to and manages the Endpoint Management Server (EMS)
  • D. Web Management Console for Endpoint connects to the Check Point Security Management Server (SMS)

Answer: A

Explanation:
The SmartEndpoint Console is a key component in the Harmony Endpoint architecture, specifically designed to connect to and manage the Endpoint Management Server (EMS). It is a Check Point SmartConsole application used to deploy, monitor, and configure endpoint security clients and policies, communicating directly with the EMS. In contrast, SmartEndpoint does not connect to the Security Management Server (SMS) as stated in option A. SmartConsole (C) is a broader management tool for Check Point gateways, not specifically for the EMS. Option D, regarding the Web Management Console, is not supported by the documentation as connecting to the SMS. Therefore, "SmartEndpoint Console connects to and manages the Endpoint Management Server (EMS)" (B) is the true statement.


NEW QUESTION # 17
Which of the following is not protected by the Full Disk Encryption (FDE) software?
* Client's user data
* Operating system files
* Temporary files
* Erased files

  • A. Erased files
  • B. Temporary and erased files
  • C. All of these are protected with FDE
  • D. Temporary files

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 18
In the POLICY Tab of the Harmony Endpoint portal for each software Capability (Threat Prevention, Data Protection etc.) rules can be created to protect endpoint machines. Choose the true statement.

  • A. The default rule is a global rule that only applies to Computers. Rules for Users must be added manually by the administrator.
  • B. The default rule is a global rule which applies to all users and computers in the organization.
  • C. There are only rules for the Harmony Endpoint Firewall Capability. All other Capabilities only include Actions.
  • D. There are no rules to start with and administrators must create rules in order to deploy the capability policies, actions and behavior.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 19
What does Unauthenticated mode mean?

  • A. Computers and users are trusted based on their IP address and username.
  • B. Computers and users are trusted based on the passwords and usernames only.
  • C. Computers and users might present a security risk, but still have access.
  • D. Computers and users have credentials, but they are not verified through AD.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In Harmony Endpoint, "Unauthenticated mode" refers to a configuration where computers and users possess credentials, but these credentials are not validated against Active Directory (AD). This mode is used when AD authentication is not implemented or required, yet some form of credential-based access control is still in place.
TheCP_R81.20_Harmony_Endpoint_Server_AdminGuide.pdfdoes not provide a single, explicit definition of
"Unauthenticated mode" in a dedicated section. However, the concept is inferred from the authentication mechanisms described, particularly in relation to Active Directory integration. Onpage 208, under "Active Directory Authentication," the documentation states:
"Endpoint Security supports Active Directory authentication for users and computers. This allows for centralized management of user credentials and policies." This indicates that AD authentication is a supported method for verifying credentials centrally. Onpage 209, in "Configuring Active Directory Authentication," the guide details the process for enabling AD-based authentication, implying that without this configuration, credentials are not verified through AD. In such cases, the system may rely on local credentials or alternative methods, which aligns with the concept of
"Unauthenticated mode" (i.e., not authenticated via AD).
Option C("Computers and users have credentials, but they are not verified through AD") directly matches this scenario:
* "Have credentials": Users and computers still use credentials (e.g., usernames and passwords) to access the system.
* "Not verified through AD": These credentials are not checked against an AD server, distinguishing this mode from AD-authenticated setups.
Let's analyze the other options:
* Option A ("Computers and users might present a security risk, but still have access"): This could be a potential outcome of unauthenticated mode, as lack of AD verification might increase risk.
However, it describes a consequence rather than defining the mode itself, making it less precise.
* Option B ("Computers and users are trusted based on their IP address and username"): The documentation does not mention trust based on IP address and username without AD verification, so this is unsupported.
* Option D ("Computers and users are trusted based on the passwords and usernames only"): This is partially correct, as unauthenticated mode may involve local credential checks. However, it lacks the critical distinction of "not verified through AD," which is central to the concept in Harmony Endpoint.
Thus,Option Cis the most accurate and specific definition based on the documentation's discussion of authentication methods.
References:
CP_R81.20_Harmony_Endpoint_Server_AdminGuide.pdf, Page 208: "Active Directory Authentication" (outlines AD support for credential verification).
CP_R81.20_Harmony_Endpoint_Server_AdminGuide.pdf, Page 209: "Configuring Active Directory Authentication" (implies non-AD verification when not configured).


NEW QUESTION # 20
Which solution encrypts various types of removable storage media including USB drives, backup hard drives, and SD cards?

  • A. Endpoint's Media Encryption (ME) Software Capability
  • B. Full Recovery with Media Encryption
  • C. Media Encryption and Port Protection (MEPP)
  • D. Full Disk Encryption and File Recovery

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 21
What is the command required to be run to start the Endpoint Web Interface for on-premises Harmony Endpoint Web Interface access?

  • A. start_web_mgmt - run in expert mode
  • B. web_mgmt_start - run in dish
  • C. start_web_mgmt - run in dish
  • D. web_mgmt_start - run in expert mode

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 22
When deploying a policy server, which is important?

  • A. To install the heartbeat server first
  • B. To have policies in place
  • C. To configure the EPS and define the amount of time that the client is allowed to connect to the SMS
  • D. To configure the heartbeat interval and define the amount of time that the client is allowed to connect to the server

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 23
Where are quarantined files stored?

  • A. On client computer, under C:\Program Files\CheckPoint\Endpoint Security\Remedlaiion\quarantine
  • B. On client computer, under C:\ProgramData\CheckPoint\Harmony Endpoint Security\quarantine
  • C. On client computer, under C:\ProgramData\CheckPoint\Endpoint Security\Remediation\quarantlne
  • D. On Management server, under $FWDIR\sba\Remediation\quarantine

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 24
When in the Strong Authentication workflow is the database installed on the secondary server?

  • A. After Endpoint Security is enabled
  • B. Exactly when Endpoint Security is enabled
  • C. After synchronization and before Endpoint Security has been enabled
  • D. Before Endpoint Security is enabled

Answer: C

Explanation:
In Check Point Harmony Endpoint's High Availability (HA) configuration, a secondary server is set up to ensure continuity if the primary server fails. The timing of the database installation on the secondary server is critical to maintain synchronization and functionality. TheCP_R81.
20_Harmony_Endpoint_Server_AdminGuide.pdfprovides explicit instructions on this process.
Onpage 202, under the section "Configuring a Secondary Server," the guide states:
"After synchronization, the secondary server will have a copy of the primary server's database. You must install the database on the secondary server after synchronization and before enabling Endpoint Security." This extract clearly indicates that the database installation on the secondary server occursafter synchronization(to ensure it has an up-to-date copy of the primary server's data) andbefore enabling Endpoint Security(to prepare the server for operation). This sequence aligns precisely withOption D.
Let's evaluate the other options:
* Option A: After Endpoint Security is enabled- This is incorrect because enabling Endpoint Security before installing the database would leave the secondary server unprepared to handle endpoint operations, contradicting the HA setup process.
* Option B: Before Endpoint Security is enabled- While technically true that the database is installed before enabling Endpoint Security, this option omits the critical synchronization step, making it incomplete and inaccurate in the context of the workflow.
* Option C: Exactly when Endpoint Security is enabled- This is incorrect as the documentation specifies a distinct sequence, not a simultaneous action.
Thus,Option Dis the only choice that fully and accurately reflects the Strong Authentication workflow for HA as per the official documentation.
References:
CP_R81.20_Harmony_Endpoint_Server_AdminGuide.pdf, Page 202: "Configuring a Secondary Server" (exact timing of database installation in HA setup).


NEW QUESTION # 25
External Endpoint policy servers (EPS) decrease X and reduce X between sites?

  • A. External Endpoint policy servers (EPS) decrease the load of the EMS and reduce the bandwidth required between sites
  • B. Decrease power and reduce accidents between sites
  • C. Decrease clients and reduce device agents between sites
  • D. Decrease policies and reduce traffic between sites

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 26
What type of attack is Ransomware?

  • A. Where an attacker decrypts files on a computer and demands payment for encryption key.
  • B. Ransomware is not an attack.
  • C. Where a victim encrypts files on a computer and demands payment for decryption key from an attacker.
  • D. Where an attacker encrypts files on a computer and demands payment for decryption key.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 27
You must make a decision of which FDE algorithm to be used by one of your clients who specializes in multimedia video editing. What algorithm will you choose?

  • A. Video processing is a high bandwidth application which utilizes a lot of HDD access time. You have to use a FDE algorithm with small secret key like XTS-AES 128 bit.
  • B. In multimedia applications you do not need to implement any kind of Full Disk Encryption. You can use software like 7Zip in order to encrypt your data.
  • C. The implementation of a Secure VPN with very strong encryption will make your data invisible in cases of live internet transmission.
  • D. Any kind of data is very important and the Full Disk Encryption technique must be used with the strongest secret key possible. Your client has to use strong encryption like XTS-AES 256 bit.

Answer: D

Explanation:
For a client specializing in multimedia video editing, the recommended Full Disk Encryption (FDE) algorithm isXTS-AES 256 bit. TheCP_R81.20_Harmony_Endpoint_Server_AdminGuide.pdfemphasizes the importance of strong encryption for securing sensitive data. Onpage 217, under "Check Point Full Disk Encryption," it states: "Combines Pre-boot protection, boot authentication, and strong encryption to make sure that only authorized users are given access to information stored on desktops and laptops." Additionally, onpage 221, under "Self-Encrypting Drives," it discusses the use of robust encryption, noting that FDE ensures data security with strong algorithms. While the guide does not explicitly list "XTS-AES 256 bit" as the only option, it aligns with industry standards for the strongest encryption (256-bit key size), and Check Point's focus on security over performance trade-offs supports this choice.
Multimedia video editing involves large, sensitive files, and the guide does not suggest compromising encryption strength for performance. Instead, it prioritizes data protection, making XTS-AES 256 bit the best choice for this scenario.
* Option A ("Secure VPN with very strong encryption")is irrelevant, as it addresses network transmission, not FDE for local storage.
* Option B ("No need for FDE, use 7Zip")contradicts the guide's emphasis on FDE for data security (page 217), as file-level encryption like 7Zip does not protect the entire disk.
* Option D ("XTS-AES 128 bit for performance")suggests a weaker key size for performance, but the documentation does not endorse reducing encryption strength; it prioritizes security (page 221).
* Option C ("XTS-AES 256 bit")aligns with the guide's focus on strong encryption and the need to protect all data, making it the correct choice.
References:
CP_R81.20_Harmony_Endpoint_Server_AdminGuide.pdf, Page 217: "Check Point Full Disk Encryption" (emphasizes strong encryption for data security).
CP_R81.20_Harmony_Endpoint_Server_AdminGuide.pdf, Page 221: "Self-Encrypting Drives" (discusses robust encryption for FDE).


NEW QUESTION # 28
In the OVERVIEW Tab of the Harmony Endpoint portal which Overview shows the Active Alerts?

  • A. The Computer Management view
  • B. The Policy Overview
  • C. The Operational Overview
  • D. The Security Overview

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 29
Where are quarantined files stored?

  • A. On client computer, under C:\Program Files\CheckPoint\Endpoint Security\Remediation\quarantine
  • B. On client computer, under C:\ProgramData\CheckPoint\Harmony Endpoint Security\quarantine
  • C. On client computer, under C:\ProgramData\CheckPoint\Endpoint Security\Remediation\quarantine
  • D. On Management server, under $FWDIR\sba\Remediation\quarantine

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 30
What are the general components of Data Protection?

  • A. It supports SmartCard Authentication and Pre-Boot encryption.
  • B. Data protection includes VPN and Firewall capabilities.
  • C. Only OneCheck in Pre-Boot environment.
  • D. Full Disk Encryption (FDE), Media Encryption, and Port Protection.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The general components of Data Protection in Harmony Endpoint areFull Disk Encryption (FDE),Media Encryption, andPort Protection. This is explicitly detailed in theCP_R81.
20_Harmony_Endpoint_Server_AdminGuide.pdfon page 20 under "Introduction to Endpoint Security," within the table listing "Endpoint Security components that are available on Windows." The entry for "Media Encryption and Media Encryption & Port Protection" states, "Protects data stored on the computers by encrypting removable media devices and allowing tight control over computers' ports (USB, Bluetooth, and so on)," while "Full Disk Encryption" is described as combining "Pre-boot protection, boot authentication, and strong encryption to make sure that only authorized users are given access to information stored on desktops and laptops." These components collectively form the core of Data Protection by securing data at rest and on removable media, and controlling port access. Option B accurately lists these three components. Option A ("Data protection includes VPN and Firewall capabilities") is incorrect, as VPN and Firewall are separate components (Remote Access VPN and Firewall/Application Control, respectively, on pages 20-21), not specifically under Data Protection. Option C ("It supports SmartCard Authentication and Pre-Boot encryption") describes features of FDE (pages 273-275), not the full scope of Data Protection components.
Option D ("Only OneCheck in Pre-Boot environment") is too narrow, as OneCheck is a user authentication feature (page 259), not a comprehensive Data Protection component. Thus, option B is the verified answer.
References:
CP_R81.20_Harmony_Endpoint_Server_AdminGuide.pdf, Page 20: Introduction to Endpoint Security (lists Full Disk Encryption, Media Encryption, and Port Protection as components).


NEW QUESTION # 31
You're going to prepare a Deployment Scenario of an Endpoint Security Client on a Windows machine in an On-Prem environment. You choose one of two basic deployments - which is typical for a local deployment?

  • A. Agent (Initial Client) package only
  • B. Agent (Initial Client) and Software Blades packages
  • C. Agent-less (no Client) and Software Blades packages
  • D. Agent (free Client) package only

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 32
One of the ways to install Endpoint Security clients is 'Automatic Deployment'. Which of this is true for automatic deployment of Endpoint Security clients?

  • A. Automatic deployment can be done on any Windows machine with Check Point SmartConsole first installed
  • B. Automatic deployment first requires installation of the Initial Client package, which is exported and distributed manually
  • C. Automatic deployment can be done on any Windows 10 machine without any Check Point component pre-installed
  • D. For automatic deployment to work, the client system must have SVN Foundation enabled in Windows 10 or downloaded and installed on other operating systems

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 33
What GUI options do you have to access the Endpoint Security Management Server in a cloud environment?

  • A. SmartEndpoint Distributor
  • B. Nothing, there is no Cloud Support for Endpoint Management Server.
  • C. SmartConsole and Gaia WebUI
  • D. Infinity Portal and Web Management Console

Answer: D

Explanation:
In a cloud environment, the primary graphical user interface (GUI) options for accessing the Endpoint Security Management Server are the Infinity Portal and the Web Management Console. The Infinity Portal is a web-based platform provided by Check Point that allows administrators to manage security capabilities, including Harmony Endpoint, from a unified interface. It is specifically designed for cloud-based management and offers features like policy configuration and threat monitoring. The Web Management Console is also a relevant GUI tool for managing Harmony Endpoint, often used in conjunction with the Infinity Portal, though its specific role may vary depending on the deployment.
Option B, SmartConsole and Gaia WebUI, is incorrect because these tools are typically used for on-premises Check Point security gateways and management servers, not specifically for cloud-based endpoint management. Option C is false, as cloud support is indeed available through the Infinity Portal. Option D, SmartEndpoint Distributor, is not a GUI for accessing the management server; it is a component related to endpoint policy distribution, not a management interface. Thus, the correct answer is A. Infinity Portal and Web Management Console.


NEW QUESTION # 34
You must make a decision of which FDE algorithm to be used by one of your clients who specializes in multimedia video editing. What algorithm will you choose?

  • A. Video processing is a high bandwidth application which utilizes a lot of HDD access time. You have to use a FDE algorithm with small secret key like XTS-AES 128 bit.
  • B. In multimedia applications you do not need to implement any kind of Full Disk Encryption. You can use software like 7Zip in order to encrypt your data.
  • C. The implementation of a Secure VPN with very strong encryption will make your data invisible in cases of live internet transmission.
  • D. Any kind of data is very important and the Full Disk Encryption technique must be used with the strongest secret key possible. Your client has to use strong encryption like XTS-AES 256 bit.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 35
What is the time interval of heartbeat messages between Harmony Endpoint Security clients and Harmony Endpoint Security Management?

  • A. 60 seconds
  • B. 30 seconds
  • C. 60 minutes
  • D. 60 milli-seconds

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 36
External Policy Servers are placed between the Endpoint clients and the Endpoint Security Management Server. How many Policy Servers are supported per environment?

  • A. From 1 to 15 Policy Servers are supported
  • B. From 1 to 20 Policy Servers are supported
  • C. From 1 to 5 Policy Servers are supported
  • D. From 1 to 25 Policy Servers are supported

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 37
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