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NEW QUESTION # 118
A security architect needs to implement a CASB solution for an organization with a highly distributed remote workforce. One Of the requirements for the implementation includes the capability to discover SaaS applications and block access to those that are unapproved or identified as risky. Which of the following would BEST achieve this objective?
- A. Implement cloud infrastructure to proxy all user web traffic to enforce DI-P and encryption policies.
- B. Deploy endpoint agents that monitor local web traffic and control access according to centralized policy.
- C. Implement cloud infrastructure to proxy all user web traffic and control access according to centralized policy.
- D. Deploy endpoint agents that monitor local web traffic to enforce DLP and encryption policies.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to achieve the objective of discovering SaaS applications and blocking access to unapproved or identified as risky ones is to implement cloud infrastructure to proxy all user web traffic and control access according to centralized policy (C). This solution would allow the security architect to inspect all web traffic and enforce access control policies centrally. This solution also allows the security architect to detect and block risky SaaS applications.
NEW QUESTION # 119
An organization's finance system was recently attacked. A forensic analyst is reviewing the contents of the compromised files for credit card data.
Which of the following commands should the analyst run to BEST determine whether financial data was lost?
- A. Option D
- B. Option C
- C. Option A
- D. Option B
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 120
A product manager at a new company needs to ensure the development team produces high- quality code on time. The manager has decided to implement an agile development approach instead of waterfall. Which of the following are reasons to choose an agile development approach? (Choose two.)
- A. The product manager would like to produce code in linear phases.
- B. Budgeting and creating a timeline for the entire project is often more straightforward using an agile approach rather than waterfall.
- C. An agile approach incorporates greater application security in the development process than a waterfall approach does.
- D. The product manager gives the developers more autonomy to write quality code prior to deployment.
- E. The product manager prefers to have code iteratively tested throughout development.
- F. The scope of work is expected to evolve during the lifetime of project development.
Answer: E,F
NEW QUESTION # 121
A security analyst needs to recommend a remediation to the following threat:
Which of the following actions should the security analyst propose to prevent this successful exploitation?
- A. Enable TLS 1.2.
- B. Patch the system.
- C. Install a host-based firewall.
- D. Update the antivirus.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 122
Due to internal resource constraints, the management team has asked the principal security architect to recommend a solution that shifts partial responsibility for application-level controls to the cloud provider. In the shared responsibility model, which of the following levels of service meets this requirement?
- A. SaaS
- B. FaaS
- C. PaaS
- D. laaS
Answer: C
Explanation:
With the PAAS the responsibility is shared where the CSP would manage the underlying OS and the customer would manage the software that is running on top of the OS.
NEW QUESTION # 123
A software company is developing an application in which data must be encrypted with a cipher that requires the following:
* Initialization vector
* Low latency
* Suitable for streaming
Which of the following ciphers should the company use?
- A. Cipher block chaining message authentication code
- B. Electronic codebook
- C. Cipher block chaining
- D. Cipher feedback
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cipher feedback (CFB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that allows them to encrypt streaming data. CFB uses an initialization vector (IV) and a block cipher to generate a keystream that is XORed with the plaintext to produce the ciphertext. CFB has low latency because it can encrypt each byte or bit of plaintext as soon as it arrives, without waiting for a full block. CFB is suitable for streaming data because it does not require padding or block synchronization.
B) Cipher block chaining message authentication code (CBC-MAC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides both encryption and authentication. CBC-MAC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt the plaintext and generate a MAC value that is appended to the ciphertext. CBC-MAC has high latency because it requires the entire message to be processed before generating the MAC value. CBC-MAC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.
C) Cipher block chaining (CBC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. CBC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext by XORing it with the previous ciphertext block. CBC has high latency because it requires a full block of plaintext before encryption. CBC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.
D) Electronic codebook (ECB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. ECB uses a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext independently. ECB has low latency because it can encrypt each block of plaintext as soon as it arrives. However, ECB is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization. Moreover, ECB is insecure because it does not use an IV and produces identical ciphertext blocks for identical plaintext blocks.
NEW QUESTION # 124
Clients are reporting slowness when attempting to access a series of load-balanced APIs that do not require authentication. The servers that host the APIs are showing heavy CPU utilization. No alerts are found on the WAFs sitting in front of the APIs.
Which of the following should a security engineer recommend to BEST remedy the performance issues in a timely manner?
- A. Implement input validation on the API.
- B. Implement OAuth 2.0 on the API.
- C. Implement geoblocking on the WAF.
- D. Implement rate limiting on the API.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Keyword here is that the API does not require authentication. OAUTH 2.0 solves that and will improve performance by only processing authenticated calls.
NEW QUESTION # 125
A security architect is given the following requirements to secure a rapidly changing enterprise with an increasingly distributed and remote workforce
* Cloud-delivered services
* Full network security stack
* SaaS application security management
* Minimal latency for an optimal user experience
* Integration with the cloud 1AM platform
Which of the following is the BEST solution?
- A. Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)
- B. Managed Security Service Provider (MSSP)
- C. NGFW
- D. SASE
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 126
A security engineer needs to implement a CASB to secure employee user web traffic. A key requirement is that the relevant event data must be collected from existing on-premises infrastructure components and consumed by the CASB to expand traffic visibility. The solution must be highly resilient to network outages.
Which of the following architectural components would BEST meet these requirements?
- A. AWAF
- B. Reverse proxy
- C. Log collection
- D. API mode
Answer: C
Explanation:
The architectural component that would best meet these requirements is log collection. A log collection system can gather event data from various on-premises infrastructure components and send it to the CASB for analysis and visibility. A log collection system can also be designed to be highly resilient to network outages, ensuring that data is collected and sent to the CASB even in the event of an outage.
NEW QUESTION # 127
A security analyst runs a vulnerability scan on a network administrator's workstation.
The network administrator has direct administrative access to the company's SSO web portal.
The vulnerability scan uncovers cntical vulnerabilities with equally high CVSS scores for the user's browser, OS, email client and an offline password manager.
Which of the following should the security analyst patch FIRST?
- A. Browser
- B. Password manager
- C. OS
- D. Email client
Answer: A
Explanation:
The browser is the application that the security analyst should patch first, given that all the applications have equally high CVSS scores. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a method for measuring the severity of vulnerabilities based on various factors, such as access conditions, impact, and exploitability. CVSS scores range from 0 to 10, with higher scores indicating higher severity. However, CVSS scores alone are not sufficient to determine the patching priority, as they do not account for other factors, such as the likelihood of exploitation, the exposure of the system, or the criticality of the data. Therefore, the security analyst should also consider the context and the risk of each application when deciding which one to patch first. In this case, the browser is likely to be the most exposed and frequently used application by the network administrator, and also the most likely entry point for an attacker to compromise the system or access the SSO web portal. Therefore, patching the browser first can reduce the risk of a successful attack and protect the system and the data from further damage. Verified References:
https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
https://www.darkreading.com/risk/vulnerability-severity-scores-make-for-poor-patching-priority-researche
NEW QUESTION # 128
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has created a survey that will be distributed to managers of mission-critical functions across the organization.
The survey requires the managers to determine how long their respective units can operate in the event of an extended IT outage before the organization suffers monetary losses from the outage.
To which of the following is the survey question related? (Choose two.)
- A. Mean time between failures
- B. Risk avoidance
- C. Business impact
- D. Risk assessment
- E. Recovery time objective
- F. Recovery point objective
Answer: C,F
NEW QUESTION # 129
A security manager wants to transition the organization to a zero trust architecture. To meet this requirement, the security manager has instructed administrators to remove trusted zones, role-based access, and one-time authentication. Which of the following will need to be implemented to achieve this objective? (Select THREE).
- A. Firewall
- B. laas
- C. Least privilege
- D. Policy automation
- E. PKI
- F. Continuous validation
- G. VPN
- H. Continuous integration
Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:
Least privilege, policy automation, and continuous validation are some of the key elements that need to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Zero trust architecture is a security model that assumes no implicit trust for any entity or resource, regardless of their location or ownership. Zero trust architecture requires verifying every request and transaction before granting access or allowing data transfer. Zero trust architecture also requires minimizing the attack surface and reducing the risk of lateral movement by attackers.
A) Least privilege is a principle that states that every entity or resource should only have the minimum level of access or permissions necessary to perform its function. Least privilege can help enforce granular and dynamic policies that limit the exposure and impact of potential breaches. Least privilege can also help prevent privilege escalation and abuse by malicious insiders or compromised accounts.
C) Policy automation is a process that enables the creation, enforcement, and management of security policies using automated tools and workflows. Policy automation can help simplify and streamline the implementation of zero trust architecture by reducing human errors, inconsistencies, and delays. Policy automation can also help adapt to changing conditions and requirements by updating and applying policies in real time.
F) Continuous validation is a process that involves verifying the identity, context, and risk level of every request and transaction throughout its lifecycle. Continuous validation can help ensure that only authorized and legitimate requests and transactions are allowed to access or transfer data. Continuous validation can also help detect and respond to anomalies or threats by revoking access or terminating sessions if the risk level changes.
B) VPN is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, which is a technology that creates a secure tunnel between a device and a network over the internet. VPN can provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for network communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. VPN still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
D) PKI is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders, as well as to encrypt and sign data. PKI can provide encryption and authentication for data communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. PKI still relies on trusted authorities and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
E) Firewall is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall can provide protection against unauthorized or malicious network access, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Firewall still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
G) Continuous integration is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Continuous integration is a software development practice that involves merging code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and automatically. Continuous integration can help improve the quality, reliability, and performance of software products, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Continuous integration still relies on code-based quality assurance and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
H) IaaS is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. IaaS can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost-efficiency for IT infrastructure, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. IaaS still relies on cloud-based security controls and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
NEW QUESTION # 130
A company hired a third party to develop software as part of its strategy to be quicker to market. The company's policy outlines the following requirements:
The credentials used to publish production software to the container registry should be stored in a secure location.
Access should be restricted to the pipeline service account, without the ability for the third-party developer to read the credentials directly.
Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation for storing and monitoring access to these shared credentials?
- A. Key vault
- B. TPM
- C. MFA
- D. Local secure password file
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 131
A new web server must comply with new secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. This includes mitigating the risk of an on-path attack. A security analyst is reviewing the following web server configuration:
Which of the following ciphers should the security analyst remove to support the business requirements?
- A. TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA
- B. TLS_CHACHA20_POLY1305_SHA256
- C. TLS_AES_128_CCM_8_SHA256
- D. TLS_AES_128_GCM_SHA256
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 132
Users are reporting intermittent access issues with & new cloud application that was recently added to the network. Upon investigation, he scary administrator notices the human resources department Is able to run required queries with the new application, but the marketing department is unable to pull any needed reports on various resources using the new application. Which of the following MOST likely needs to be done to avoid this in the future?
- A. Modify the ACLs.
- B. Update the marketing department's browser.
- C. Reconfigure the WAF.
- D. Review the Active Directory.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Modifying the ACLs (access control lists) is the most likely solution to avoid the intermittent access issues with the new cloud application. ACLs are used to define permissions for different users and groups to access resources on a network. The problem may be caused by incorrect or missing ACLs for the marketing department that prevent them from accessing the cloud application or its data sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario
NEW QUESTION # 133
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